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Mar. 16th, 2006 08:36 amFor those more knowledgable about transexual issues than I am...
Someone in one of my communities posted a question about a FTM transexual, using the gender inclusive ze/zir .
It seem to me that, in this case, the gender inclusive language is for the benefit of those who feel the need to distinguish between the person in question and a biological male. He identifies as male - why the need to introduce ambiguity? On the other hand, the question does deal specifically with biological sex vs. chosen gender identity. I also don't know the feelings of the person in question. Maybe he/ze prefers the gender inclusive pronouns.
Someone in one of my communities posted a question about a FTM transexual, using the gender inclusive ze/zir .
It seem to me that, in this case, the gender inclusive language is for the benefit of those who feel the need to distinguish between the person in question and a biological male. He identifies as male - why the need to introduce ambiguity? On the other hand, the question does deal specifically with biological sex vs. chosen gender identity. I also don't know the feelings of the person in question. Maybe he/ze prefers the gender inclusive pronouns.
