(no subject)
Mar. 16th, 2006 08:36 amFor those more knowledgable about transexual issues than I am...
Someone in one of my communities posted a question about a FTM transexual, using the gender inclusive ze/zir .
It seem to me that, in this case, the gender inclusive language is for the benefit of those who feel the need to distinguish between the person in question and a biological male. He identifies as male - why the need to introduce ambiguity? On the other hand, the question does deal specifically with biological sex vs. chosen gender identity. I also don't know the feelings of the person in question. Maybe he/ze prefers the gender inclusive pronouns.
Someone in one of my communities posted a question about a FTM transexual, using the gender inclusive ze/zir .
It seem to me that, in this case, the gender inclusive language is for the benefit of those who feel the need to distinguish between the person in question and a biological male. He identifies as male - why the need to introduce ambiguity? On the other hand, the question does deal specifically with biological sex vs. chosen gender identity. I also don't know the feelings of the person in question. Maybe he/ze prefers the gender inclusive pronouns.
no subject
Date: 2006-03-17 05:34 am (UTC)no subject
Date: 2006-03-18 12:50 pm (UTC)There is a lot of fuzzieness in the transition process, but certainly for an FTM to give birth despite identifying male, whilst being unusual, would not be an admission of being female.
This might not make much sense but trying to explain these things is difficult.
Incidentally, you may ask that question and any others that you have. I would be happy to answer any question to the best of my ability.
Cathii
no subject
Date: 2006-03-18 04:04 pm (UTC)